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  • Under the FDCA, what is required for a drug to be considered “safe and effective”?
  • What is the purpose of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) Form 222?
  • What is an example of a Schedule I controlled substance?
  • What specific documentation is required when a pharmacist dispenses a controlled substance?
  • What is the consequence if a controlled substance is found to be misbranded?
  • Why is the regulation of dietary supplements considered less stringent compared to drugs?
  • What is the proper interpretation of the FDA equivalency rating AB in relation to a generic medication?
  • What does good manufacturing practices (GMP) ensure?
  • Which DEA form must be submitted to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances?
  • Re-importation of medications is only legal if performed by which entity?
  • Which law prohibits the distribution of food and drugs that are misbranded or adulterated?
  • What Act requires health care facilities to report death or injuries caused by or suspected to have been caused by a medical device?
  • What defines a “controlled substance” under federal law?
  • What system is used to classify controlled substances?
  • What is an Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA)?
  • To comply with Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) requirements, how often must a pharmacist conduct a Drug Regimen Review for long-term care patients?
  • Which type of records may a pharmacy keep at a central location other than their registered location with the DEA?
  • What is one potential consequence of improper drug disposal?
  • What role does clinical pharmacology play in drug approval?
  • A patient wants to refill a prescription but was not satisfied with the pharmacy that filled and dispensed the prescription the first time. The patient demands the prescription be returned so they can take it to a different pharmacy to obtain refills. The pharmacist should:
  • What would be the correct last digit of the DEA number BS5927683 if it were accurate?
  • What does the term “adverse drug reaction” mean?
  • Retail containers of 81 mg aspirin must have special warnings for use in children and cannot contain more than:
  • What is the main focus of the FDCA?
  • Which government agency is responsible for regulating controlled substances?
  • Which best describes the practice of transferring large quantities of compounded medications between pharmacies?
  • Which organization has the authority to classify drugs into schedules?
  • What DEA form is required to purchase or transfer Schedule II controlled substances?
  • What is a requirement for labeling over-the-counter (OTC) medications?
  • What are the requirements for maintaining a prescription drug log?
  • Which agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the FDCA?
  • What must be maintained for recordkeeping compliance under the Prescription Drug Marketing Act?
  • What is a key requirement of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) in pharmacies?
  • Under what conditions may the FDA require a Medication Guide for certain prescriptions?
  • In a drug utilization review (DUR), which of the following aspects is NOT reviewed?
  • In the event of a breach of unsecured protected health information (PHI) affecting approximately 900 patients, who must be notified?
  • What is the maximum quantity of a Schedule V controlled substance that can be sold without a prescription?
  • What system is used as an electronic substitute for DEA Form 222 when ordering Schedule II controlled substances?
  • What does “pharmacy compounding” mean?
  • What type of information is primarily included in the Patient Package Insert (PPI) for medications?
  • What must be demonstrated in order for a drug to qualify for the abbreviated NDA process?
  • What entity is responsible for providing education on the safe use of medications, including monitoring for adverse effects?
  • Which legislation mandated tamper-evident packaging for certain OTC products?
  • A pharmacist receives an urgent notification from a manufacturing company for a recall of a specific medication because it may cause serious adverse health issues or death. What type of drug recall is this?
  • Which of the following is a feature of patent exclusivity?
  • In the context of CSA, what does "scheduling" refer to?
  • What does OSHA require pharmacies to do regarding employee training?
  • What is a common requirement for non-child-resistant containers?
  • When must prescription drug samples be provided to patients?
  • What is the purpose of the Drug Approval Process?
  • Registering with the FDA as an outsourcing facility allows a pharmacy to do what?
  • What is the main goal of the Controlled Substance Act (CSA)?
  • A patient requests a copy of her prescription records from a community pharmacy. Within what time period must the pharmacy provide this information?
  • What medication requires Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) monitoring?
  • Which DEA registration form is used for pharmacies to register with the DEA to possess and dispense controlled substances?
  • Durable Medical Equipment (DME) must meet which of the following standards?
  • Which of the following prescriptions would likely be outside the scope of practice for a dentist?
  • Which of the following entities is required to register with the DEA?
  • What is the primary goal of the Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP)?
  • What does "patent exclusivity" indicate in the pharmaceutical industry?
  • Under the iPledge Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) for isotretinoin, what is the maximum number of refills authorized on a prescription?
  • What Act established the requirement that patients must be offered counseling on all dispensed medications?
  • How are dietary supplements primarily regulated by the FDA?
  • Which aspect does pharmacovigilance NOT focus on?
  • Which of the following defines the importance of the Adverse Event Reporting System (AERS)?
  • A drug manufacturer finds that bottles labeled "loratadine 10mg tablets" actually contain 5mg tablets. What is true of this product?
  • Which of the following is NOT a component of good manufacturing practices (GMP)?
  • What is the main purpose of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)?
  • Which piece of information is NOT required on a manufacturer's container of an OTC medication?
  • What is the goal of drug formulation as part of clinical pharmacology?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Controlled Substances Act (CSA)?
  • What information is required in the transaction report transmitted from a manufacturer to a pharmacy when a pharmacy purchases bulk bottles of a medication?
  • What was the first law requiring drugs to be proven safe before being marketed?
  • What indicates a “serious adverse event”?
  • What does the Controlled Substance Act aim to achieve apart from controlling distribution?
  • What is the purpose of a DEA Form 41?
  • Define “exempt narcotics” as per federal regulations.
  • What is a common reason for a prescription to be deemed invalid?
  • What defines a “medical device” under federal law?
  • Which of the following provides information about the risks relative to benefits of a drug?
  • A prescription for lorazepam can be refilled a maximum of how many times within a six-month period?
  • When a patient calls a retail pharmacy requesting that their prescription for a Schedule II controlled substance be mailed to their home, how should the pharmacist respond?
  • What is required for a manufacturer to sell a medical device?
  • Which of the following is NOT a reason for a pharmacist to provide patient medication counseling?
  • What term best describes a pharmacy that compounds ibuprofen suppositories for sale to other pharmacies?
  • Schedule II controlled substances CANNOT be transferred in which of the following scenarios?
  • Which agency is responsible for overseeing the approval and regulation of drugs in the United States?
  • Anabolic steroids are classified under which controlled substance schedule under federal law?
  • Which method is valid for ordering Schedule III medications from a supplier?
  • What is a key outcome expected from a Drug Utilization Review (DUR)?
  • Which of the following methods is appropriate for filing paper prescription records in a pharmacy, according to federal law?
  • What is a Class I drug recall typically associated with?
  • How often must a pharmacy renew its DEA registration?
  • Which Act regulates prescription drug sample sales and their recordkeeping requirements?
  • A water-containing oral formulation that is compounded from commercially available drug products has a maximum beyond-use-date (BUD) of how many days when refrigerated?
  • Explain the significance of the Orphan Drug Act.
  • Who can issue a prescription for controlled substances?
  • Under federal law, how are controlled substances classified?
  • Federal investigations into thefts and robberies may occur per the Controlled Substances Registrant Protection Act if which condition is met?
  • Where can a pharmacist find information to determine if generic warfarin tablets are bioequivalent to brand name Coumadin tablets?
  • How long is a DEA registration for possession of controlled substances valid?
  • What constitutes a legitimate medical purpose for prescribing controlled substances?
  • Which statement best describes the FDA's role in drug recalls?
  • An example of a misbranded manufacturer's container of a drug would be if:
  • What constitutes a “valid prescription” for controlled substances?
  • What are the dispensing restrictions for Schedule III and IV controlled substances?
  • What does the term “counterfeit drugs” refer to?
  • What must be done if a prescription for a controlled substance is lost or stolen?
  • A physician writes a prescription for ibuprofen 800mg tablets for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and requests easy-open containers for all future prescriptions. What is TRUE regarding this request?
  • When a hospital pharmacist contacts a patient's outpatient pharmacy to obtain medication information, what is true regarding HIPAA?
  • Which of the following drugs has a REMS program due to a high frequency of birth defects?
  • In what situation would it be illegal for a pharmacy to compound drugs?
  • What are “investigational new drugs” (IND)?
  • What must be included in a proper investigational brochure?
  • Which law requires drugs to be proven effective and safe before being marketed?
  • What is the first application required to be submitted to the FDA before a drug can be tested on humans?
  • In which case would it be permissible to provide controlled substance information without patient consent?
  • Which of the following is a Schedule II controlled substance?
  • What does “off-label” use refer to?
  • What set of regulations specifies the required minimum manufacturing standards for pharmaceutical products in the US?
  • Which of the following is/are NOT required to be packaged in a child-resistant container?
  • Which statement is true about DEA Form 222?
  • What class of drugs typically requires a prescription due to their potential for abuse and side effects?
  • Which best describes a “narcotic” according to federal definitions?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA)?
  • Which organization enforces regulations for the handling of controlled substances?
  • What statement is required on an OTC package of acetaminophen tablets under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act?
  • OTC drug advertising is primarily regulated by which agency?
  • Which term best describes the rights given to the pharmaceutical company for marketing a drug?
  • Which of the following is NOT required on the manufacturer's drug container label for an oral drug product?
  • What is the purpose of Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)?
  • Which schedule of controlled substances requires the highest level of security and record-keeping?
  • Which of the following statements is true about narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs?
  • How can patients safely dispose of unused medications?
  • How does "patent exclusivity" benefit pharmaceutical companies?
  • How many doses of controlled substances can a pharmacy transfer to another pharmacy without registering as a distributor?
  • How are combination products regulated under federal law?
  • Which of the following products is NOT required to be in tamper-evident packaging for retail sale?
  • What does pharmacovigilance involve?
  • A drug has an NDC of 16103-0350-11. The 0350 represents:
  • What is the primary responsibility of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)?
  • Prescription records must be kept for a minimum of how many years based on federal law?
  • What is the main purpose of drug recalls?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Orange Book?
  • Which of the following is considered a mid-level practitioner?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)?
  • What key aspect of dietary supplements differentiates them from prescription medications?
  • What is the significance of the FDA Modernization Act?
  • What is the primary purpose of the FDA?
  • Which agency is responsible for enforcing the federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA)?
  • When must a Patient Package Insert (PPI) be given to a nursing home patient prescribed an estrogen-containing product?
  • What is the expiration date of a bottle of metformin labeled 3/19?
  • Drugs classified as Schedule I are characterized by which of the following?
  • Is there any barriers preventing an independent community pharmacy from offering refill reminders by mail?
  • When a pharmacy submits a DEA Form 222 to purchase Schedule II controlled substances, who retains the original copy?
  • Which of the following would NOT be considered a potential part of a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program?
  • What must pharmacies do in relation to action plans for chemical safety?
  • Which of these is a valid DEA Registration number for a mid-level practitioner?
  • What is the purpose of conducting a medication therapy management review?
  • Which FDA expedited review program is intended for drugs that treat serious conditions and fill an unmet medical need?
  • Which schedule contains drugs with a lower potential for abuse and is accepted for medical use?
  • Which act or amendment created the separation of drugs into two different categories, prescription (legend) and OTC?
  • What is required of pharmacies under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act?
  • During a Drug Utilization Review, what type of information is primarily evaluated?
  • What information can be determined from the National Drug Code (NDC) number on a medication bottle?
  • Which type of information is NOT required on prescription labels according to regulations?
  • Provide an example of a Schedule II controlled substance.
  • What does an NDC number allow one to identify about a drug?
  • An example of an adulterated drug is:
  • What defines a "dangerous drug" under federal regulations?
  • What does the FDA's relaxed regulation of dietary supplements imply?
  • Which schedule contains drugs deemed the most dangerous with no accepted medical use?
  • Who administers the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)?
  • What must an outpatient prescription include to be considered legally valid?
  • Under what circumstance can a pharmacy technician accept a prescription drug order?
  • Who is authorized to sign a DEA 222 Form at a community pharmacy?
  • What Act set the requirements for child-resistant closures for prescription drugs, non-prescription drugs, and hazardous household products?
  • If a manufacturer wants to change the way an existing drug is produced, what application must they submit to the FDA?
  • What impact does patent exclusivity have on generic drugs?
  • What factor is most important in determining whether a substance is classified as a narcotic?
  • In which phase of drug development does the investigation focus on a large population to establish efficacy and side effects?
  • What are the penalties for trafficking in controlled substances?
  • What are the recordkeeping requirements for Schedule II controlled substances?
  • Which of the following schedules includes substances with a high potential for abuse and severe dependence but has recognized medical use?
  • How does the FDA monitor post-marketing drug safety?
  • What types of patients are included in a Phase I clinical trial for drug development?
  • For which type of drug recall is there a possibility of temporary or medically reversible adverse effects, but serious adverse effects are remote?
  • Which law requires new drugs to be proven safe and effective before approval?
  • What is a “New Drug Application” (NDA)?
  • What phase of clinical trials focuses on long-term effects of a drug?
  • What is the role of the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)?
  • Each numbered line on a DEA Form 222 may contain how many items?
  • What is required for the electronic prescription of controlled substances?
  • What does CSOS stand for in the context of controlled substances ordering?
  • Which phase of a clinical trial is primarily used to assess the efficacy of a drug?
  • DEA registration is NOT required for which of the following situations?
  • A pharmacist may call a prescriber and receive verbal permission to change all of the following on a Schedule II prescription EXCEPT:
  • What purpose does a "Drug Utilization Review" (DUR) serve?
  • What is the responsibility of pharmacies regarding the Drug Enforcement Administration?
  • What is a primary purpose of the REMS program?
  • What information is typically not required on a medication label?
  • Acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3) is classified under which controlled substance schedule?
  • For which class of drugs is a new prescription generally required more frequently due to high abuse potential?
  • Which of the following best defines “controlled substances”?
  • Which statement is true regarding the handling of prescription drug samples?
  • What must be included in the labeling of prescription medications for certain high-risk drugs?
  • A warning stating "Caution: Federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient" is required on labels for which prescriptions?
  • What are the labeling requirements for prescription medications?
  • What is the purpose of the Proof of Concept studies in the drug development process?
  • What constitutes “labeling” under the FDCA?
  • Which of the following is required information on a prescription label?
  • What is a “corresponding responsibility” in the context of prescribing controlled substances?
  • Which organization outlines standards and requirements for preparing sterile compounded drugs?
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